|
||||||||||
Chris, > > Me and my friend got two private LANs with some Gentoo boxes. We'd like > > to connect this two networks over a VPN connection. So that the machines > > from both networks are virtually on the same subnet (10.0.0.x). Having a VPN connection doesn't necessarily mean that both of the connecting LANs have to have the exact same subnet. It just means that the LANs feel as if they are "virtually" connected (1 hop away) when they could be geographically separate. > > The situation is this: > > LAN A (mine) connected to a 2 mbit/s cable lane > > - 192.168.1.1: m0n0 > > - 8x gentoo boxes > > LAN B (my friend's) connected to a 1,2 mbit/s adsl lane > > - 192.168.1.1: gentoo router > > - 4x gentoo boxes With standard VPN (IPSec/PPTP), this setup could not work. You can't have both subnets be exactly the same, or else either one of the following occurs: You can't route over the VPN tunnel because traffic is destined for the local subnet, or you can't connect the tunnel at all because there's major routing problems. Vincent mentions that you can do something like this with OpenVPN TAP, but I'm not familiar enough with that to comment. > > We don't want that every request which is sent goes to the other gateway > > like this is with PPTP VPN. The gateway should be on both sides > > 192.168.1.1. OK, after reading this a couple of times, my understanding is that you do not want all traffic heading over the VPN tunnel, which is the way PPTP works it. Now, once again, I'm not sure how flexible OpenVPN is, but to accomplish this type of setup, you would want IPSec. This would allow all IP traffic destined to be routed to the remote subnet (the two LANs must be on different subnets) to be routed over the VPN tunnel, while all other traffic is forwarded to the next hop (ISP). > > It'd be good if the routers could make one connection to the other > > router, so that not every client on both LANs needs to open a VPN > > connection. IPSec only makes one connection and all traffic that needs to be forwarded across the tunnel (based on the Layer 3 Address only) will be. > > We also want to access the VPN from school. At that place there is a > > firewall which blocks all traffic except TCP80/443. So we want a VPN > > server listening on port 443 at LAN A, cause there is more upstream. Since PPTP default is 1723 and IPSec uses GRE (not even TCP), your best bet in this case is OpenVPN. In that case you need to be able to actually install stuff on the computer at school. > > Now is this concept good? To my knowledge, it's probably not a good idea to have your two separate LAN subnets have the same subnet. I'm not sure how OpenVPN TAP would deal with broadcasts, but I can only imagine how much it would hurt bandwidth to have to forward common Layer2 and Layer3 broadcasts frames (like ARPing, NetBIOS discovery, etc) over a slow link. > > Which VPN method should we use? OpenVPN or IPSec? > Vincent Fleuranceau <vincent at bikost dot com> wrote: > I would set up OpenVPN server on m0n0wall (site A) and configure LAN B's > gateway as an OpenVPN client. You'll be able to connect to A from a > standalone OpenVPN client installed at school, too. > > I don't really understand why/what you want to do with your networks, > but to be short: if there is no need to be have all host on one > (virtual) network segment, use TUP. In that case, you'll have to > re-number one of your two LAN so that they use different IP addresses > schemes (if not, routing will be *broken*). If you absolutely *need* to > make both A and B subnets appear as one (virtual) network segment, use TAP. > > Take a look at the available docs on the OpenVPN site and search for > configuration examples (case studies). I'm not familiar with OpenVPN setup, and since support in m0n0 is beta, I haven't been brave enough to tweak with it in my environment yet. However, you might end up needing to use both IPSec and OpenVPN depending if you still want to go with your setup where both LANs are on the same subnet. /sylikc |