Would it be possible to do a 1:1 like this: xxx.xxx.xxx.147/32 ->
192.168.1.90   ?

Once you create the mapping, how do you create rules to allow traffic
to come in from these IP's?  A specific example, just for testing,
would be VNC.  I want to pass 5900 from xxx.xxx.xxx.147 to
192.168.1.90.  Would I just pass from the WAN, any source, source port
5900, destination 66.146.190.147, destination port 5900?

Also would it be possible for m0n0wall to act as a transparent bridge
and filter the traffic that flows across it?  So I could give a router
on the other side of m0n0wall a public ip address that has been
filtered by m0n0?

Thank you.  

Joe


On Wed, 4 Aug 2004 00:48:51 -0700, sylikc <sylikc at gmail dot com> wrote:
> For example, if you had an internal server that would use 146-150, and
> your internal subnet is 192.168.1.0/24, do a 1:1 mapping for
> xxx.xxx.xxx.146/32 -> 192.168.1.146
> xxx.xxx.xxx.147/32 -> 192.168.1.147
> xxx.xxx.xxx.148/32 -> 192.168.1.148
> xxx.xxx.xxx.149/32 -> 192.168.1.149
> xxx.xxx.xxx.150/32 -> 192.168.1.150
> 
> I'm not necessarily sure if you could map them all to the exact same
> address, but in the case that you can't, just bind your server to
> those addresses if you want to use all those external IPs to hit the
> same internal server.